My question is kind of misleading but here is the thing. I know that $\int_{-\infty} ^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x}dx$ has an integral, as a lot of proofs are available here (and it is easily observable from its plot).
But what I don't get is that it has a removable singularity and hence no residue whatsoever in the upper semicircle (I am assuming a regular upper semicircular contour) and by this, its integral should be 0 [Relating to: removable singularities give integral as 0].
So what am I getting wrong here? I am sure I messed up my fundamentals somewhere. Please help me out.
PS: My inspiration for this question is a physics-based H.W. So less rigorous math would be appreciated. Thanks in advance.