I have two questions about probability in terms of formulas.
Going through a couple of videos on probability, I have seen a general function for calculating the probability an object with 2 outcomes but with more than one object. Let's use a coin for an example. The formula would be the following:
$P(k\text{ heads}, n-k \text{ tails}) = \dbinom n k\dfrac{1 } {2^n}$
where:
$n$ = # of objects: in this case coins
$k$ = # of a certain outcome: in this case heads
$\displaystyle {n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$
My questions:
- Can still formula remain true for other object with unique outcomes (6 six sided die, 3 side die, etc) with we replace the 2 with a 6 or 3? Can you explain why this is or is not possible?
- How does this formula or the probably in general change when there are objects with know unique outcomes are at play? Examples:
- a 3+ sided die with the same outcome on more than one side side?
- flipping two coins but 1 coin is a trick coin ( has 2 heads)
Sorry this is my first question, and I'm not sure how the platform words to use the tools. If someone can edit the question to format is better, I would appreciate it.
$
signs. Use ^ for exponents and _ for subscripts.$x_1^{2/3}$
shows up as $x_1^{2/3}$. $\endgroup$