This fact is obvious if I'm allowed to use modular arithmetic, but not without it.
Suppose I define $\mathbb{Z}/n$ as the set $\{0,1, \ldots, n-1\}$ with addition given by $(a,b) \to a + b$ if $a + b < n$ and $a + b - n$ otherwise. I then define a map $\varphi: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/n$ sending $a$ to $a \text{ mod $n$}$, that is, I send an integer to its remainder after division by $n$. I claim this is a homomorphism of groups, but I can't prove it.
So given $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$, $\varphi(a + b) = a + b \text{ (mod $n$)}$. If $a + b < n$ in $\mathbb{Z}$, then its remainder is $a + b$, and we're done. If not, then $a + b \text{ (mod $n$)}$ is $a + b - n$. I don't know how to proceed from here.
If I try to use the divison algorithm outright, I get $a = nq_1 + r_1$ and $b = nq_2 + r_2$ where $q_1, q_2, r_1, r_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$ are unique and $0 \leq r_1, r_2 \leq n-1$. Then $$a + b = n(q_1 + q_2) + (r_1 + r_2).$$ But then there's a question of whether $r_1 + r_2$ is divisible by $n$, so I'm stuck again.