Prove (or disprove):
Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are $1$-$1$ on $\mathbb{R}$. If $f$ and $g\circ f$ are continuous on $\mathbb{R}$, then $g$ is continuous on $\mathbb{R}$.
There are similiar questions floating around, but these all lack the "$1$-$1$" requirement; none of the counterexamples for those statements will work for this one.
This statement seems intuitively true (not that that means much), but I'm having a hard time with the proof.
Theorems from the preceding chapter, that may or may not be relevant:
Let $I$ be a nondegenerate interval and suppose that $f:I\to\mathbb{R}$ is $1$-$1$. If $f$ is continuous on $I$, then $J:=f(I)$ is an interval, $f$ is strictly monotone on $I$, and $f^{-1}$ is continuous and strictly monotone on $J$.
$\,$
Let $I$ be an open interval and $f:I\to\mathbb{R}$ be $1$-$1$ and continuous. If $b=f(a)$ for some $a\in I$ and if $f'(a)$ exists and is nonzero, then $f^{-1}$ is differentiable at $b$ and $(f^{-1})(b)=1/f'(a)$.