I am reading some papers on game theory and mathematical logic. I have some questions about the formalized system in the papers. The following is the system.
Language:
Free variables :$a_0,a_1,\cdots $
Bounded variables :$x_0,x_1,\cdots $
Functions:$f_0,f_1 \cdots$
Predicates:$P_0,P_1,\cdots$
Knowledge operators: $K_1,K_2,\cdots$ (These are not important and I will ignore them in my questions.)
Logical connectives:$\neg ,\supset (implies),\wedge, \vee, \forall, \exists$
Parentheses:$(,)$
Then, terms are defined in the standard way. And so are formulas with respect to $\neg ,\supset , \forall, \exists$ . But things are different for $\wedge ,\vee$.
Let $ \mathcal{P}_0$ be the set of all formulas generated by the above standard definition with respect to $\neg ,\supset , \forall, \exists$ and $\Phi$ be a subset of $ \mathcal{P}_0$ (satisfying some property). The authors intended to introduce formulas $\wedge \Phi$ and $\vee \Phi$, whose intended meaning is "for all $A \in \Phi, A$ is true."
Here, I have a question. I think neither $\wedge \Phi$ nor $\vee \Phi$ is a expression. So, neither $\wedge \Phi$ nor $\vee \Phi$ can be a formula. $\Phi$ is a meta-level concept and then cannot be treated (easily) in the formalized system.
please give me some advices.