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Below is an question related to largest /giant component :

Let $p >> \frac{1}{n}$. Prove that, for every $ε > 0$, a.a.s. the largest component of $G(n, p)$ has a size of at least $(1 − ε)n$.

So what I understand from the largest component is it will be the largest connected component present in a random graph. I was planning to solve it in a way as it is solved for w.h.p $G(n, p)$ contains a tree component of the given size. For the latter, the idea was to take the expectation and prove it tends to infinity and then prove $Var X/(EX)^2$ tends to zero ( where X represents the no of tree component of the given size) but the problem is I do not know how to calculate expectation for a giant component (like in case of trees the expectation is choosing k vertices out of n and multiplying it with no of ways of drawing a tree and the probability of having an edge and so on).

Could anyone please help me solve this question?

Thank you all.

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Let $V_1,...,V_m\subset V(G(n,p))=:V$ be all the possible choices of $\varepsilon n$ vertices of $G(n,p)$, that is, $|V_i|=\varepsilon n$ and $m={n\choose \varepsilon n}$.

And we define the event $A_i=\{e(G[V_i,V\setminus V_i])= 0\}$, where $e(G[V_i,V\setminus V_i])$ count the number of edges between $V_i$ and $V\setminus V_i$ in $G(n,p)$.

Then, we want to prove that

$$P\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^m A_i\right) \to 0.$$

As $A_i$ happening is equivalent to all the edges between $V_i$ and $V\setminus V_i$ not appearing in $G(n,p)$ we have that

$$P(A_i)= (1-p)^{(\varepsilon n)(1-\varepsilon)n}\leq e^{-\varepsilon(1-\varepsilon) p n^2}.$$

By the union bound and using ${n\choose k}\leq (\frac{e n}{k})^k$, we get

\begin{align*} P\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^m A_i\right) &\leq \sum_{i=1}^m P(A_i) \\ &\leq {n\choose \varepsilon n} e^{-\varepsilon(1-\varepsilon) p n^2} \\ &\leq \left(\frac{e n}{\varepsilon n}\right)^{\varepsilon n} e^{-\varepsilon(1-\varepsilon) p n^2} \\ &= e^{-\varepsilon(1-\varepsilon) p n^2 + \varepsilon n (1-\log(\varepsilon))} \\ &= e^{-\varepsilon n((1-\varepsilon) p n + 1-\log(\varepsilon))} \to 0\\ \end{align*}

because $p n \to \infty$.

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