Title says it all. If you take a really large uniform random number and the distance from it to the next integer, you should get a uniform random number between $0$ and $1$ ($U$ everywhere in the equations is a uniform random number between $0$ and $1$).
$$\lim_{m \to \infty} (\lceil m U \rceil -mU ) \sim U(0,1)$$
For context, this identity is useful in proving the conjecture here: Need help validating a proof that for any point process with MTBF $t$, the events in an interval sized $u$ will be $\frac{u}{t}$, which says that if I take a large uniform random number and start an observation period there for any point process, the average number of events inside an interval size $u$ will be $\frac{u}{t}$ where $t$ is the mean time between events for the point process. Basically, you can rescale your time so that $t$ becomes $1$ unit and the result here shows that the time from the start of the interval to the next event will be uniform between $0$ and $t$.