If a sequence $(\mu_n)_{n\ge 1}$ of probability measures converges weakly to a p.m. $\mu$, then $$ \lim_{n\to \infty} \int f d\mu_n=\int f d\mu $$ for every $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ bounded and with finite set of discontinuity points $D$ such that $\mu(D)=0$.
Can anyone give me a hint? I know a proof in the case where $f$ is continuous using the fact that for every $\varepsilon>0$ there exists $a<b$ such that $\mu((a,b])>1-\varepsilon$ and writing $$ \left \vert \int f d\mu_n-\int f d\mu \right \vert \le \left \vert \int_{(-\infty,a]} f d\mu_n-\int_{(-\infty,a]} f d\mu \right \vert + \left \vert \int_{(a,b]} f d\mu_n-\int_{(a,b]} f d\mu \right \vert + \left \vert \int_{(b,+\infty)} f d\mu_n-\int_{(b,+\infty)} f d\mu \right \vert $$
Is it a good path?