Let $f:[0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be bounded and integrable function.
Let $R_n=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f\left ( \frac{k}{n} \right )$.
I need to prove "$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }R_n=\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$".
I will write down my approach first, so you can clearly see what the question in the title means.
My approach:
Let partition $P=\{0,\frac{1}{n},\frac{2}{n},...,1\}$
Then note that, $$\inf_{x\in \left [ 0,\frac{1}{n} \right ]}f(x)\leq f\left ( \frac{1}{n} \right )\leq \sup_{x\in \left [ 0,\frac{1}{n} \right ]}f(x)$$ $$\inf_{x\in \left [ \frac{1}{n},\frac{2}{n} \right ]}f(x)\leq f\left ( \frac{2}{n} \right )\leq \sup_{x\in \left [ \frac{1}{n},\frac{2}{n} \right ]}f(x)$$ $$\cdot \cdot \cdot $$ $$\inf_{x\in \left [ \frac{n-1}{n},1 \right ]}f(x)\leq f\left ( \frac{n}{n} \right )=f(1)\leq \sup_{x\in \left [ \frac{n-1}{n},1 \right ]}f(x)$$
So, $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)\leq \sum_{k=1}^{n}f\left ( \frac{k}{n} \right )\leq \sum_{k=1}^{n}\sup_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]}f(x)$$
$$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)\leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f\left ( \frac{k}{n} \right )\leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sup_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]}f(x)\; \; \; \cdot \cdot \cdot \bigstar $$ $$\Rightarrow \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)\leq \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f\left ( \frac{k}{n} \right )\leq \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sup_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]}f(x)$$
From this step, I wanted to show that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)=L(f)\; \; \; \text{and} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sup_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]}f(x)=U(f)$$
so that this could automatically implies $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }R_n=\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$.
However, I am not sure where to start to show them.
One idea that I have is substracting $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)$ from each side in step $\bigstar $ because "f is integrable" implies "$\forall \varepsilon > 0,\; \exists P$ s.t $U(f,P)-L(f,P)<\varepsilon $"
Can I get some help?
Update:
As we substract $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\inf_{x\in \left [ t_{k-1},t_{k} \right ]} f(x)$ from each side, then we get $$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\left (\sup_{x \in [t_{k-1},t_k]}f(x)-\inf_{x \in [t_{k-1},t_k]}f(x) \right )=U(f,P)-L(f,P)$$ on the right hand side.
Thus, $$\left | \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f\left ( \frac{k}{n} \right ) \right |\leq U(f,P)-L(f,P) $$
We can take $N$ large enough to make it satisfy the following condition, $$\forall \varepsilon >0\: \: \exists N \: \: s.t\: \: |U(f,P)-L(f,P)|<\varepsilon \; \; \forall n>N$$ because there always some refinement of $P$ that can make difference smaller.
Therefore $\lim [U(f,P)-L(f,P)]=0$
And, thus
$$\lim L(f,P) = L(f) = U(f) = \lim U(f,P)$$ This gives us, $$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty }R_n=\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$$
Does my updated part look right?