We may speak of a function distributing over another, e.g.,
$$ f(a,g(b,c)) = g(f(a,b),f(a,c)) \qquad a \cdot (b + c) = a \cdot b + a\cdot c$$
Some logical operators have similar distribution rules, such as:
$$ \left(P \land (Q \lor R) \right) \leftrightarrow ((P \land Q) \lor (P \land R))$$
In the logical case, we can can break the distribution relationship into the left and the right (or forward and backward) directions, i.e.,
\begin{eqnarray} \left(P \land (Q \lor R) \right) & \to & ((P \land Q) \lor (P \land R))\\ ((P \land Q) \lor (P \land R)) &\to & \left(P \land (Q \lor R) \right) \end{eqnarray}
In modal logic, the axiom K, also called distribution, states that the necessity modality, $\Box$, distributes over the material conditional:
$$ \Box(P \to Q) \to (\Box P \to \Box Q) \tag{K}$$
I am interested in the relationships between different truth-functional operators and the $\Box$ modality. In general, for a truth-functional operator $\otimes$ we can consider the two sentences:
\begin{eqnarray} \Box(P \otimes Q) &\to& (\Box P \otimes \Box Q) \tag{left$_\otimes$} \\ (\Box P \otimes \Box Q) &\to& \Box(P \otimes Q) \tag{right$_\otimes$} \end{eqnarray}
In normal modal logics, left$_\otimes$ holds for $\otimes \in \{\land,\to\}$ and right$_\otimes$ holds for $\otimes \in \{\land,\lor\}$.
When left$_\otimes$ holds for an operator $\otimes$, I am comfortable saying that $\Box$ distributes over $\otimes$, even if (as in the case of $\lor$) right$_\otimes$ does not hold. Is this a standard terminology? In the case of functions, $\to$ is replaced by equality, so each side is equal to the other, but with logical operators, we can have one side imply the other, but not vice versa. If left$_\otimes$ is distrbution for an operator, then what is right$_\otimes$ called? “Accumulation?” Is there a standard set of names for these relationships?
Other examples and references
The modal operator $\Box$ in modal logics with Kripke semantics is a univeral quantifier in disguise, so it's no surprise that this behavior appears in first-order quantifiers. As discussed in Distribution of Quantifiers over Conjunction and Disjunction, it's easy to see that
$$\forall x.(P(x) \lor Q(x)) \leftrightarrow (\forall x.P(x) \lor \forall x.Q(x)) $$
is not valid. That site concludes that “universal quantification does not distribute over disjunction.” However, the leftward direction of this is valid. We could say that “universal quantification accumulates over disjunction,” perhaps? This fact is also discussed in the question Distribution of Universal Quantifiers.