I found the following question in an exam and not able to completely crack it. I paste the question as it was there:
Suppose $C[a, b]$ denote the set of all real valued continuous functions on $[a, b]$. Define an inner product on it so that it will become an inner product space having the property that for any sequence $\{f_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty} \subset C[a, b] ~ ||f_n-f_m|| \to 0$ as $m, n \to \infty$ if and only if for some $f, ||f_n-f||\to 0$ as $n \to \infty$.
What I understand that this question is asking for an 'inner product' on $C[a, b]$ so that, a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy iff it converges ! i.e., to define an 'complete inner product' on the vector space $C[a, b]$.
- Now although, $\langle f, g \rangle :=\int_a^bfg$ defines an inner product on $C[a, b]$, it is not complete! So we have to define something else.
- Also another fact is that the (norm)topology induced by such an inner product should not be finer (nor weaker) than $\Vert~ \Vert_{\infty}$-topology, since both are going to be Banach-norm topology on $C[a, b]$. i.e. the new norm should be non comparable to the sup norm.
What would be such an inner product on $C[a, b]$ ? Any remark/suggestion is highly appreciated. Thanks.