If I have to solve $-\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\, dx$ it is right to write: $$-\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\geq \int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{-1}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}$$ and so the integral is divergent? I have use the fact that $-\frac{\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\geq \frac{-1}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}$.
If I have instead $\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\, dx$, so without minus sign, what can I do to prove the divergence? Is it true that from the following I can deduce the divergence? $$\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\, dx=-\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{-\sin^{4}{x}}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\, dx\geq -\int_{3}^{+\infty}\frac{-1}{x^{\frac{1}{3}}}\, dx $$ My doubt arises since I have seen here that a similar integral here (Solution verification of the improper integral $\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt$) is solved in a more complicate way...