Study $$\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt$$ I have thought the following:
I consider the fact $\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\leq \frac{1}{t}$ this is not useful since $\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{1}{t}\, dt$ is divergent but this is not helpful to affirm that $\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt$ is convergent.
I want to try to prove that the integral is divergent. To do this I have thought:
$$\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt=\int_1^{\pi}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt+\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi} \frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt$$ From this for the reason why $\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\geq 0$ in $[1,\pi]$ then $\int_1^{k\pi}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt\geq 0$ and it is not an improper integral, so: $$\int_1^{\pi}\frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt+\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi} \frac{\cos^2{t}}{t}\,dt\geq \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi} \frac{\cos^2{t}}{(k+1)\pi}\,dt= \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{1}{(k+1)\pi}\,dt$$
Now since $ \frac{1}{k+1}\sim \frac{1}{k}$ then the series is divergent and so the integral is divergent.
$\textbf{Request:}$ I would be so grateful if you can tell me if my work (so not only the conclusion on the fact that the integral is divergent), described at 2), is right or there are some mistakes and in this case how can I correct them? Thanks a lot in advance.