I'm studying advanced analytic number theory and the following identity surprised me the most:
$$\int_{1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{dz\,dy\,dx}{x(x+y)(x+y+z)} = \dfrac{5\,\zeta(3)}{24}$$
My idea is to use triple integral representation of $\zeta(3)$, that is
$$\zeta(3) = \int_{0}^{1}\int_{x}^{1}\int_{y}^{1}\dfrac{dx\,dy\,dz}{(1-x)\,yz}$$
however it appears to be a rather tricky problem to relate the triple integral of $\zeta(3)$.
Integrating with respect to $x$ we get
$$\int_{1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{dz\,dy\,dx}{x(x+y)(x+y+z)} =\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\left(\dfrac{\log(y+1)}{yz} - \dfrac{\log(y+z + 1)}{z(y+z)}\right)dy\,dz$$
I'm unable to make any further progress and I think integrating this way doesn't get us anywhere so I'd not recommend anyone to work on this problem as I did (by integrating as above).
Out of curiosity: Can we prove the required using contour integration or residue theorem?
I'm in search of a neat detailed answer with proper references for tools used directly.
Thanks in advance.