In Feller's Intro to Probability Theory Vol. 1. there is a step I don't know how the author proceded.
You have the full source here
In first place we have (you can ignore the $N^n$):
$$N^n p_k = k^n - (k-1)^n $$
Now we have:
$$E(X) = \sum_{k = 1}^Nkp_k$$ $$ = N^{-n}\sum_{k = 1}^N \{k (k^n - (k-1)^n)\} = N^{-n}\sum_{k = 1}^N \{k^{n+1}-(k-1)^{n+1}-(k-1)^n\}$$
Which is followed by the question:
$$k(k-1)^n \overset{?}{=} (k-1)^{n+1}+(k-1)^n$$
This algebra is the argument for an approximation he later does on the same page number, however I don't believe the last steps he made are correct.