This question is inspired by several others on a similar topic: see e.g. this one and a sequence of linked questions. Let us so far focus on $\Bbb R^n$ endowed with standard Borel structure. For any map $\phi\in \mathcal C^1(\Bbb R^n,\Bbb R^n)$ we have the following formula for the change of variables in the integral $$ \int_{\phi(\Omega)}f\;\mathrm d\lambda = \int_\Omega (f\circ\phi)\;|\phi'|\mathrm d\lambda \tag{1} $$ where $\Omega$ is any Borel set, $f$ is any Borel and bounded, $\phi'$ is the Jacobian of $\phi$ and $\lambda$ is the $n$-dimensional Lebesgue measure on $\Bbb R^n$.
On the other hand, for any Borel measure $\mu$ the following formula applies $$ \int_\Omega (f\circ\phi)\;\mathrm d\mu = \int_{\phi(\Omega)}f\;\mathrm d(\phi_*\mu) \tag{2}. $$ where $(\phi_*\mu)(A) = \mu(\phi^{-1}(A))$ is the pushforward measure. As a result, provided the fact that $ \frac{\mathrm d\mu}{\mathrm d\lambda} = |\phi'| $ we obtain for any admissible $\Omega$ and $f$ that $$ \int_{\phi(\Omega)}f\;\mathrm d\lambda = \int_{\phi(\Omega)}f\;\mathrm d(\phi_*\mu) $$ which implies that $\lambda|_{\phi(\Omega)} = (\phi_*\mu)|_{\phi(\Omega)}$. Moreover, if $\phi(\Omega) = \Bbb R^n$ then $\lambda = \phi_*\mu$.
Let $\mathcal P(\Bbb R^n)$ be the set of all Borel measures on $\Bbb R^n$, and for any $\phi\in \mathcal C^1(\Bbb R^n,\Bbb R^n)$ with the range $\Bbb R^n$ let us define an operator $\phi'$ on $\mathcal P(\Bbb R^n)$ given by $\mathrm d\phi'(\mu) := |\phi'|\mathrm d\mu.$ As a result, from the discussion above we obtain that $\lambda$ solves the equation $$ \phi_*(\phi'(\mu)) = \mu \tag{3}. $$ for any such $\phi$. Clearly, for some $\phi$ there may be multiple solution: e.g. if $\phi =\mathrm{id}_{\Bbb R^n}$ then $\phi_*\circ \phi' = \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal P(\Bbb R^n)}$ so that any $\mu$ satisfies $(3)$ in this case.
Q1: Is that true, that $\lambda$ is the only positive measure (up to scaling) that satisfies $(3)$ for all $\phi$ that range over $\Bbb R^n$?
Q2: If such a measure is not unique, what similar properties do they have? Perhaps, it has to be equivalent to the Lebesgue measure.
Q3: Is there a "characteristic" map $\hat\phi$ such that if $\mu$ satisfies $(3)$ for $\hat\phi$, then it satisfies it for all $\phi$?
Q4: Is there any intuitive reason, why the Lebesgue measure satisfies this equation?
P.S. Feel free to fix my notation (especially $\phi'$ as an operator), or comment for which $\Omega$, $f$ and $\phi$ formulas above are well-defined - I didn't have a chance to study geometric measure theory.
I hope that the current formulation may shed some light on the similarities between two different formulas for the change of coordinates, which are not clear to me at the moment. Also, I know that similar formulas for the change of coordinates are available for smooth manifolds endowed e.g. with Hausdorff measures, so perhaps this feature applies not only to the Lebesgue measure, but to $n$-dimensional Hausdorff measures as well.
Another consequence of $(1)$ and $(2)$ is that for any $\mathcal C^1$-bijection $\phi$ it holds that $$ \frac{\mathrm d(\phi_*\lambda)}{\mathrm d\lambda} = |(\phi^{-1})'|\circ\phi^{-1}. $$