I am studying the coarea formula proof from Evans and Gariepy's Measure Theory and Fine Properties of Functions. At the start of lemma 3.5, the authors are assuming that we can compute the $n$-dimensional Lebesgue measure from coverings of closed balls, namely, that the Lebesgue measure of a measurable set $A\subseteq\mathbb R^n$ equals $$\text{inf}\left\{\left.\sum_{i=1}^\infty\mathcal L^n(B_i)\,\right|A\subseteq\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty B_i,\,B_i\text{ closed ball in }\mathbb R^n\,\right\}$$
I don't think this assumption is obvious at all. I have searched for a while and I have not encountered yet a justification for this. In the only answer to this question, some corollary of the Vitali covering lemma is applied. However, no-one can guarantee that the disjoint closed balls that approximate the rectangles of any covering of $A$ are going to contain, in their union, the set $A$ we are interested in...
Thanks in advance for your answers.