In a system of first order difference equations, I get the following solution
$\begin{bmatrix} x_{1,t} \\ x_{2,t}\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \mathcal{A} \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} \lambda_1^t + \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} \lambda_{2}^t$
For some $\mathcal{A} \neq 0$.
I know I need one eigenvalue to be less than one and the to be other greater than one in absolute terms for the system to be saddle path stable, which is what I want.
My question is about the fact that I get a zero in the second eigenvector. Does this have any particular meaning?
For example (please correct me if I am wrong), if $|\lambda_1| < 1$ and $|\lambda_2| > 1$, $x_{2,t}$ will stabilise and $x_{1,t}$ will go to zero as $t\rightarrow 0$.
But if the converse is true, i.e. $|\lambda_1| > 1$ and $|\lambda_2| < 1$, then although $x_{2,t}$ continues to be stable, $x_{1,t}$ will now explode.
This would not happen if that zero wasn't there, correct? I would always have both $x_{1,t}$ and $x_{2,t}$ saddle path stable as long as one of the eigenvalues was greater than one and the other less than one in absolute terms. Is that correct?
PS: how do I call that format of solution I wrote on top? Is this the Jordan form?