How to prove/show $1- (\frac{2}{3})^{\epsilon} \geq \frac{\epsilon}{4}$, given $0 \leq \epsilon \leq 1$?
I found the inequality while reading a TCS paper, where this inequality was taken as a fact while proving some theorems. I'm not a math major, and I'm not as sufficiently fluent in proving inequalities such as these (as I would like to be), hence I'd like to know, why this is true (it does hold for a range of values of $\epsilon$ from $0$ to $1$), and how to go about proving such inequalities in general.