Here I state Lamb's version of the Euler's equation for an elastic fluid: $$ \partial_t \vec v + \vec \Omega \times \vec v + \vec \nabla \left( \frac{\|\vec v\|^2}{2} + \frac{p}{\rho} + \psi + \phi_b\right) = 0$$ where $\vec\Omega$ is the vorticity of the fluid, $p$ the pressure, $\rho$ the density, $\vec b$ is a potential body force such that $\vec b = \vec \nabla \phi_b$ and $\psi$ is Helmholt's density of energy that in our course has been defined as the fuction $\psi = \psi(\rho)$ such that $$p(\rho) = \rho^2 \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \rho}$$
Using Lamb's equation we stated this version of Bernoulli's theorem:
Theorem: Consider an elastic eulerian fluid, then in steady flow the quantity $\frac{\|\vec v\|^2}{2} + \frac{p}{\rho} + \psi + \phi_b$ is constant along the flow lines. (Usually I've been told that the quantity $w :=\frac{p}{\rho} + \psi$ is called Gibbs' free energy)
Proof: It sufficies to show that $\vec v \cdot \vec \nabla \left( \frac{\|\vec v\|^2}{2} + w + \phi_b\right) = 0$ but this is obvious from Lamb's equation.
My questions are:
Why It sufficies to show that $\vec v \cdot \vec \nabla \left( \frac{\|\vec v\|}{2} + w + \phi_b\right) = 0$ to prove that theorem? (The obviousness of the next passage is clear to me)
How this theorem can be linked to the "classical" Bernoulli statement: $p = -\rho \frac{\|\vec v \|^2}{2} + k$ where $k$ is a constant?