Rather than give formulas, I will describe the graphs of the functions, which are piecewise linear. Think of a “discretely moving wave”, where after the wave is done moving, we switch to a “thinner” wave.
Let $f_1$ go from $(0,1)$ to $(\frac{1}{2},0)$ to $(1,0)$. Let $f_2$ go from $(0,0)$ to $\frac{1}{2},1)$ to $(1,0)$. Let $f_3$ go from $(0,0)$ to $\frac{1}{2},0)$ to $(1,1)$.
Then let $f_4$ go from $(0,1)$ to $(\frac{1}{4},0)$ to $(1,0)$. Let $f_5$ go from $(0,0)$ to $(\frac{1}{4},1)$ to $(\frac{1}{2},0)$ to $(1,0)$. Then $f_6$ from $(0,0)$ to $(\frac{1}{4},0)$ to $(\frac{1}{2},1)$ to $(\frac{3}{4},0)$ to $(1,0)$. Then $f_7$ go from $(0,0)$ to $(\frac{1}{2},0)$ to $(\frac{3}{4},1)$ to $(1,0)$. Then $f_8$ from $(0,0)$ to $(\frac{3}{4},0)$ to $(1,1)$.
Next do the same thing with the partition $0\lt \frac{1}{8}\lt\frac{1}{4}\lt\frac{3}{8}\lt \frac{1}{2}\lt \frac{5}{8}\lt\frac{3}{4}\lt\frac{7}{8}\lt 1$. Then partitioning $[0,1]$ into $16$ equal subintervals, etc.
Each new batch of functions has a smaller integral, all positive, but converging to $0$. The functions are all continuous. And $f_n(x)$ does not converge for any $x$ because you can always find arbitrarily large values of $n$ where $f_n(x)=0$ and values where $f_n(x)$ is very close to $1$ (by approximating $x$ with a rational with denominator a power of $2$).