I am currently going through Hammack's Book of Proof (3rd edition), and have been stuck on the following exercise for the past two weeks.
Prove the comparison test: Suppose $\Sigma a_k$ and $\Sigma b_k$ are series. If $0 \le a_k \le b_k$ for each $k$, and $\Sigma b_k$ converges, then $\Sigma a_k$ converges. Also, if $0 \le b_k \le a_k$ for each $k$, and $\Sigma b_k$ diverges, then $\Sigma a_k$ diverges.
Now, the reader is instructed to prove this using "Definition 13.7 (and Definition 13.5, as needed)" from the book which goes as follows.
Definition 13.7
A series $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_k$ converges to a real number $S$ if its sequence of partial sums $\{s_n\}$ converges to $S$. In this case we say $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_k = S$.
We say $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_k$ diverges if the sequence $\{s_n\}$ diverges. In this case $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_k$ does not make sense as a sum or does not sum to a finite number.
Definition 13.5
A sequence $\{a_n\}$ converges to a number $L \in \mathbb{R}$ provided that for any $\epsilon > 0$ there is an $N > \mathbb{N}$ for which $n > N$ implies $|a_n - L| < \epsilon$.
If $\{a_n\}$ converges to $L$, we denote this state of affair as $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = L$
If $\{a_n\}$ does not converge to any number $L$, then we say it diverges.
I am currently focusing on the first statement. Also, that statement intuitively makes sense to me: if the series $\Sigma a_k$ has only non-negative terms, then it will either converge or diverge to infinity. However, since $0 \le a_k \le b_k$, it follows that $\Sigma a_k \le \Sigma b_k$ and thus, if $\Sigma a_k$ did diverge to infinity we would have a contradiction. I am able to formalize this as follows.
Proof. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $\Sigma a_k$ diverges to infinity. That is, for every $L \in \mathbb{R}$ there exists a number $N' \in \mathbb{N}$ for which $n \ge N'$ implies $A_n > L$ where $A_n$ is the $n$-th partial sum of $\Sigma a_k$. Also, because $\Sigma b_k$ converges to some number $B \in \mathbb{R}$, we have that for every $\epsilon > 0$, there exists a number $N'' \in \mathbb{N}$ for which $n > N''$ implies $|B_n - B| < \epsilon$ where $B_n$ is the $n$-th partial sum of $\Sigma b_k$. Further, notice that if $0 \le a_k \le b_k$ for each $k$, then $A_n = (a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_n) \le (b_1 + b_2 + \dots + b_n) = B_n$.
Now, take $\epsilon > 0$ and $L = B - \epsilon$. Also, let $N = \max(N', N'')$. Then, if $n > N$ we have $A_n > B - \epsilon$ and $|B_n - B| < \epsilon$, or $B_n < \epsilon + B$. Thus we have $B_n < \epsilon + B < A_n$ and $A_n \le B_n$, a contradiction. Therefore, $\Sigma a_k$ must converge. $$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$
The problem I have is that although divergence to infinity implies divergence, divergence does not imply divergence to infinity. Therefore, for my proof to be complete, I would need to show that if $\Sigma a_k$ diverges then it must diverge to infinity. However, I am unable to formalize this idea. I have looked it up online and stumbled accross proofs that uses Cauchy sequences or the monotone convergence theorem, but nothing that uses only the definitions above. I also tried a direct proof without any luck.
Any pointers or help would be greatly appreciated.