Solving a system of differential equations by substitution
I originally asked for help with this question which ended up just being me missing a simple identity. I've moved on and am stuck again, so hopefully you all can be as helpful as you were previously.
Define the vectors $\vec y$ = [$y_1$, $y_2$], $\vec y$' = $\left[ \frac{dy_1}{dt}, \frac{dy_2}{dt}\right]$ and the coefficient matrix A = $\begin{bmatrix} a & -b\\ b & a\end{bmatrix}$.
Then, $\vec y$' = Ay defines a system of linear homogeneous differential equations. Note that A has complex eigenvalues.
Hint: To solve the system of equations, write $z = y_1 + iy_2$ and calculate $z'$. For some $u$ defined in terms of $a$ and $b$ you should find that $z'=uz$, which is easily solved. Now, write the solution in terms of the original variables $y_1$ and $y_2$. You will need to use the identity $e^{itb}=\cos tb+i\sin tb.
- Solve the system of equations
- Locate all equilibrium points, and provide a stability analysis
- Given your answers to 1. and 2., sketch the phase plane for this system in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
I've since found that since $z' = uz = (a + ib)(y_1 + iy_2)$, we can say that $z = e^{(a+ib)t} = e^{at}e^{ibt} = e^{at}\cos(bt) + ie^{at}\sin(bt)$
From this we can go back to our original vector $\vec{y}$ and say: $\vec{y} = \begin{bmatrix} e^{at}\cos(bt)\\ e^{at}\sin(bt) \end{bmatrix}$
Of course we now want to solve the system, so I observe that for some system of differential equations we have that:
$\vec{x}(t) = \vec{\eta}e^{\lambda t}$
As such I feel that we have:
$\vec{y} = \begin{bmatrix} \cos(bt)\\ \sin(bt) \end{bmatrix}e^{at}$
I'm concerned that here I am making a mistake or am getting myself confused. How do I find the eigenvalues for this system?
If I pursue this thread, I end up with the typical steps for finding eigenvalues and eigenvectors, where:
$\det(A-\lambda I) = 0$
But above I have that $a$ is $\lambda$, so I end up solving the Wronskian such that:
$\begin{vmatrix} a-\lambda & -b\\ b & a - \lambda \end{vmatrix} = \begin{vmatrix} a-a & -b\\ b & a - a \end{vmatrix} = \begin{vmatrix} 0 & -b\\ b & 0 \end{vmatrix} = b^2 = 0$
Now I'm spinning around and around and the anxiety has me frozen. Any advice at this point would again be greatly appreciated!
EDIT: Okay - so in the case where $u = (a+ib)$ and its conjugate $\bar{u}$ are my eigenvalues, I have that:
$\begin{bmatrix} a - (a-ib) & -b\\ b & a-(a-ib) \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \eta_1\\ \eta_2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\0\end{bmatrix}$
This gives:
$ib\eta_1 - b\eta_2 = 0$ and $b\eta_1+ib\eta_2 = 0$
which gives that $\vec{\eta^{(1)}} = \begin{bmatrix} -i\\1\end{bmatrix}$, and similar for $\vec{\eta^{(2)}}$