If a finite set of well-formed formulas appears as the right argument to $\models$, how is it usually interpreted? Is it usually interpreted with an implicit disjunction like a sequent, or an implicit conjunction?
This question references this book, which the following definition
Suppose that $\Delta$ and $\Gamma$ are $\mathcal{L}$-formulas. We will say that $\Delta$ logically implies $\Gamma$ and write $\Delta \models \Gamma$ if for every $\mathcal{L}$-structure $\mathfrak{A}$, if $\mathfrak{A} \models \Delta$, then $\mathfrak{A} \models \Gamma$.
I'll use the equivalent statement below for this question, which changes the notation and language slightly.
$$ \textbf{(I)}\;\;\; \Delta \models \Gamma \iff \text{for every $L$-structure $M$ where $M \models \Delta$, $M \models \Gamma$ holds} $$
So, $\Delta \vdash \Gamma$ as a sequent, is equivalent to $\bigwedge \Delta \vdash \bigvee \Gamma$. By analogy, I'll assume for a second that $\Delta \models \Gamma$ is equivalent to $\bigwedge \Delta \models \bigvee \Gamma $.
$$ \textbf{(II)} \;\small\textbf{BAD} \;\; \bigwedge \Delta \models \bigvee \Gamma \iff \text{for every $L$-structure $M$ where $M \models \bigvee \Delta$, $M \models \bigvee \Gamma$ holds } $$
(II) clearly isn't true. We're quantifying over all structures that satisfy any statement in $\Delta$ instead of all of them.
This makes me think that $\Delta \models \Gamma$ is meant to be equivalent to $\bigwedge \Delta \models \bigwedge \Gamma$. Is this how $\models$ is normally used?