I'm supposed to prove that $ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n (X_j-\overline X_n)(Y_j-\overline Y_n)$ converges almost surely to $Cov(X,Y)$ assuming that $ (X_i,Y_i)$ are iid with the same distribution as $(X,Y)$ for $i=1,\dots,n$ . Clearly that is the same as proving that $ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n X_j Y_j $ converges almost surely to $ E[XY]$ because $ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n (X_j-\overline X_n)(Y_j-\overline Y_n) = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n X_j Y_j - \overline X_n \overline Y_n$ as $ \overline X_n \overline Y_n$ converges almost surely to $ E[X]E[Y]$ and we have the formula $ Cov(X,Y)=E[XY]-E[X]E[Y]$
However I'm not sure how to prove that because it'll require to prove that the $X_1Y_1,\dots,X_nY_n$ are i.i.d. (if we use the strong law of large number) and I don't know how to prove that...any hints ?
Thans you
Note : $ \overline X_n = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=1}^n X_j $ (same for $\overline{Y_n}$)