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I got stuck in a problem in the middle of my calculations of integrals and sums.

$$\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \sum_{n=1}^\infty f(n-\epsilon)-f(n+\epsilon)=0$$

where $f$ is continuous on all of the values in the summation

I am not sure for the general case of any $f$, but I needed verification for $f(n) = -\frac{1}{n}$ will be gratefull for an explanation for the any function

First I tried to verify for no sum and here what I got;

$$\forall_{n \in \mathbb{R}} \;\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{n+\epsilon} - \frac{1}{n-\epsilon} = \frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n} = 0$$

$$\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n+\epsilon} - \frac{1}{n - \epsilon}= \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{-2\epsilon}{(n+\epsilon)(n-\epsilon)} = 0$$

Is this correct? And what about any other function

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    $\begingroup$ For the no sum, the limit is indeed $0$, but with the summation, it is apriori not clear that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+\epsilon}-\frac{1}{n-\epsilon}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{-2\epsilon}{n^2-\epsilon^2}$ approaches $0$ as $\epsilon\to 0$. It is true, but you need to justify why you can interchange the limit with the series. $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Mar 3, 2021 at 11:45
  • $\begingroup$ @peek-a-boo because of the extended sum rule? $\lim_{x \rightarrow a}[f_1(x) + ... + f_n(x)] = \lim_{x \rightarrow a}f_1(x) + ... + \lim_{x \rightarrow a}f_n(x)$ $\endgroup$ Mar 3, 2021 at 11:46
  • $\begingroup$ what do you mean extended sum rule? $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Mar 3, 2021 at 11:47
  • $\begingroup$ $n^2-\varepsilon^2\ge\frac34 n^2$ for $\varepsilon\le\frac 12$. Oh, and you have seen that your last line is complete bulls..t, right? ;-) $\endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Mar 3, 2021 at 11:50
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    $\begingroup$ Your extended sum rule is a rule only for finite sums, not for infinite sums in general. For infinite sums you need special theorems that say "in this kind of special case, it works for the infinite sum" or you need to approach the problem differently. $\endgroup$
    – Mark S.
    Mar 3, 2021 at 12:00

1 Answer 1

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For this $f(x)=1/x$ you have $$\left|\sum_{n=1}^\infty f(n-\epsilon)-f(n+\epsilon)\right|=2\epsilon\left|\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2-\epsilon^2}\right|$$ and one way to finish: for any $\epsilon<1/2$ the sum in the modulus bars is positive and bounded uniformly in $\epsilon$ by $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2-1/2}$ which is convergent, so by squeeze rule the limit is $0$.

The result is not true in general without something about $f$ becoming smaller as $n\to\infty$. For example if $f(x)=x$ then $$ f(n-\epsilon) - f(n+\epsilon) = n-\epsilon - n - \epsilon = -2\epsilon$$ which means $\sum_{n=1}^\infty f(n-\epsilon)-f(n+\epsilon)=-\infty$ for all $\epsilon>0$.

It's e.g. worse if $f(x)=x^2$, $f(n-\epsilon)-f(n+\epsilon) = -4\epsilon n$, and its better if $f(x)=\sqrt x$, $f(n-\epsilon)-f(n+\epsilon)=\sqrt{n-\epsilon}-\sqrt{n+\epsilon}=\frac{-2\epsilon}{\sqrt{n-\epsilon}+\sqrt{n+\epsilon}}\sim \frac{-2\epsilon}{\sqrt n}$, but not good enough.

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  • $\begingroup$ And what about when $\epsilon > 0: \epsilon \rightarrow 0$ $\endgroup$ Mar 3, 2021 at 12:15
  • $\begingroup$ @SubGenius if its $\infty$ for all fixed $\epsilon>0$ and you are happy treating $\infty$ as a number then so is the limit (if unclear, review the definition of a limit) $\endgroup$ Mar 3, 2021 at 12:16
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    $\begingroup$ right, thanks for the explanation. $\endgroup$ Mar 3, 2021 at 12:16

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