Hopefully this is just the notation confusing me, but how would I correctly evaluate the following function $g$ below?
$g(x,y) = \frac{\partial f(2y, y)}{\partial x}$ (or equivalently $g(x,y) = f_{x}(2y, y)$), where $f(x,y) = x + y$.
On one hand, $\frac{\partial f(x, y)}{\partial x} = 1$, so we could have $g(x,y) = 1$. On the other hand, $f(2y, y) = 3y$, suggesting $g(x,y) = \frac{\partial (3y)}{\partial x} =0.$
Edit:
To add some context, here is where this came from ($\phi$ below is a function of $x$ and $t$):
Define the mapping $T$ from $C^{\infty}_{0}(\mathbb{R}^2)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ by $T: \phi \mapsto \int_{0}^\infty \phi(t, ct)dt$, where $c$ is a real number. What is $\partial_x T$?