My son's high school teacher says his solution to this proof is wrong because it is not "the right way" and that you have to "start with one side of the equation and prove it is equal to the other". After reviewing it, I disagree. I believe his solution is correct, even if not "the right way", whatever that means. I asked my son how he did it: he cross-multiplied the given identity, simplified it to a known/obvious equality, and then reversed the steps for the proof. This was a graded exam, and the teacher gave him a zero for this problem.
What do you think about my son's solution? Thanks!
Problem: prove the following trigonometric identity \begin{align*} \frac{\csc(\theta)-1}{\cot(\theta)}&=\frac{\cot(\theta)}{\csc(\theta)+1}\ .\\ \end{align*} Solution: for all real $\theta$ not equal to an integer multiple of $\pi/2$, we have \begin{align*} \cot^2(\theta)&=\cot^2(\theta)\\[8pt] \frac{\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin^2(\theta)}&=\cot^2(\theta)\\[8pt] \frac{1-\sin^2(\theta)}{\sin^2(\theta)}&=\cot^2(\theta)\\[8pt] \csc^2(\theta)-1&=\cot^2(\theta)\\[8pt] \frac{\csc^2(\theta)-1}{\cot(\theta)}&=\cot(\theta)\\[8pt] \frac{\csc(\theta)-1}{\cot(\theta)}&=\frac{\cot(\theta)}{\csc(\theta)+1} \end{align*}