Suppose that $u\in W^{1,p}(B)$ where $B=B(0,1)\subset\mathbb{R}^N$ and $p\geq 1$. It was showed on this post (as an application of Fubini's theorem) that for almost $t\in (0,1]$ $$u_{|\partial B_t},(\nabla u)_{|\partial B_t}\in L^p(\partial B_t)$$
where $B_t=B(0,t)$. My question is: Is there any simple way to see that $u\in W^{1,p}(\partial B_t)$ for those balls where $u_{|\partial B_t},(\nabla u)_{\partial B_t}$ are defined and if $v\in L^p(\partial B_t)^N$ is the gradient of $u$ in the distributional sense, then $v=(\nabla u)_{|\partial B_t}$?
Update: I have an idea. Let $u_n\in C^1(\overline{B})$ such that $u_n\to u$ in $W^{1,p}(B)$. Note that byt Fatou's Lemma: $$\int_0^1\liminf\int_{\partial B}(|u_n(r\omega)-u(r\omega)|^p+|\nabla u_n(r\omega)-\nabla u(r\omega)|^p)r^{N-1}drd\Gamma\leq \\ \lim\int_B(|u_n(x)-u(x)|^p+|\nabla u_n(x)-\nabla u(x)|^p)dx \to 0$$
Hence, for almost $t\in (0,1]$, there exist a subsequence of $u_n$ not relabeled such that $$\int_{\partial B_t}(|u_n(y)-u(y)|^p+|\nabla u_n(y)-\nabla u(y)|^p)d\Gamma_t\to 0$$
Can I conclude what I have estated from the last convergence?
Thank you