I am hoping to show that
$$ \sum_{r=0}^q {n \choose q-r} {n-q+r \choose r}(-1)^r = 0 $$
for integers $n \geq 1$ and $1 \leq q \leq n$.
I've worked out a few examples and it seems reasonable that it should hold, but I've been unable to prove it in the general case. I've seen identities around and tried rewriting as
$$ \sum_{r=0}^q {n \choose r} {n-r \choose n-q}(-1)^r = 0 $$
which didn't seem to help. I've attempted induction based on some other answers (like the ones found here this one), but I'm not really understanding why the inductive hypothesis is what it is claimed to be, or why the identity there has the combinatorial meaning one of the answers claim it does. If an inductive proof is possible (and perhaps it's even fairly straightforward), I'd ask for a careful explanation of what the inductive hypothesis is in this case. Thanks for any help.