Let $U\subset \mathbb{C}$ be a domain (i.e. open and connected). Is it always the case that there exists a holomorphic map $f:U\to \mathbb{C}$ such that $f(U)=\mathbb{C}$?
I managed to prove it for the upper half plane ($(z-i)^2$) (and so for every simply connected set by the Riemann mapping theorem) and for $\mathbb{C}-\{z_0,\dots,z_n\}$ (just take $f(z)=\prod_{i=0}^{n+1} (z-z_i)$, where $z_{n+1}$ is a point in $\mathbb{C}-\{z_0,\dots,z_n\}$) but I do not seem to be able to prove it in general.