I am trying to understand tensor products and I would like to show that $V\otimes V\simeq L(V^*,V^*,\mathbb{R})$. In Lee's book about smooth manifolds is the following proof for the case $V^*\otimes V^*\simeq L(V,V,\mathbb{R})$:
According to the book it follows directly from $V\simeq V^{**}$, since everything is assumed to have finite dimension. I am fine with that. Nevertheless I was wondering if it couldn't be done as it is done in the above proof.
For $(v,w)\in V\times V$ and $\omega,\eta\in V^*$ I would define $\Phi :V\times V\to L(V^*,V^*,\mathbb{R}),\Phi(v,w)[\omega,\eta]:=\omega(v)\cdot\eta(w)$. I suppose it is a bilinear map. If it is, then it decents to a linear map
$\tilde{\Phi} :V\otimes V\to L(V^*,V^*,\mathbb{R}), \tilde{\Phi}(v\otimes w)[\omega,\eta]:=\omega(v)\cdot\eta(w)$. Now I am stuck. I am not sure what the basis vectors for $L(V^*,V^*,\mathbb{R})$ are or how to show that it is a bijection. I am also not sure if the apprach is okay or complete nonsense.
Thank you very much in advance!