I am trying to derive the definition of a Markov semigroup from Section 1.1 Bakry, Gentil, Ledoux Analysis and Geometry of Markov Diffusion Operators from a Markov process. I am unsure about my proof of strong continuity of the semigroup on $L^2(\mu)$ for an invariant measure $\mu$. Here is my work:
Suppose we are given a Markov process $X_t, t \geq 0$ on a Polish space $\mathcal X$. The semigroup is defined as
\begin{equation} \mathbf{P}_{t}f(x) = \mathbb E [f(X_t)|X_0=x]. \end{equation} on bounded measurable functions $\mathcal M_b (\mathcal X)$.
The semigroup property, mass conservation $\mathbf{P}_{t} 1 = 1$ and positivity preservation $f \geq 0 \Rightarrow \mathbf{P}_{t} f \geq 0$ are straightforward to show from the definition.
Also, these properties allow to show a Jensen's inequality for the semigroup, for convex functions $\Phi$ \begin{equation} \mathbf{P}_{t}(\Phi(f)) \geq \Phi\left(\mathbf{P}_{t} f\right) \end{equation}
A $\sigma$-finite measure $\mu$ is invariant under the semigroup if \begin{equation*} \int_\mathcal X \mathbf{P}_{t}f \: d \mu = \int_\mathcal X f \: d \mu, \quad \forall f \in \mathcal M_b (\mathcal X). \end{equation*}
With this, we can extend the semigroup to a contraction of $L^p(\mu), 1 \leq p\leq\infty$
\begin{align*} \| f \|_{L^p(\mu)}^p= \int_\mathcal X| f|^p \:d \mu =\int_\mathcal X \mathbf{P}_{t} |f|^p \:d \mu \geq \int_\mathcal X |\mathbf{P}_{t} f|^p \:d \mu = \|\mathbf{P}_{t} f \|_{L^p(\mu)}^p \end{align*}
Finally, for any bounded, continuous function $f \in \mathcal C_b(\mathcal X), 1 \leq p< \infty$,
\begin{equation*} \int_\mathcal X |P_t f(x)- f(x)|^p \: d \mu(x) \to 0 \quad \text{as}\quad t \to 0 \end{equation*} by the DCT since $|P_t f- f|^p(x) \leq 2^{p-1}(\|P_t f\|_\infty +\|f\|_\infty)\leq 2^{p}\|f\|_\infty< \infty$. Since $C_b(\mathcal X)$ is dense in $L^p(\mathcal X, \mu)$ we are done.
Now this argument with the DCT seems only to work for finite measures. For $\sigma$-finite measures, should I split the state-space into finite regions and apply the argument?
Also I am not sure what licenses me to say that $P_t f(x) \to f(x)$ as $t \to 0$ for $\mu$-a.e. $x$ and bounded continuous $f$. This works when the process is right continuous but I am not sure about the general case.