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Prove each set of natural numbers is the set of all smaller natural numbers. IE $ n =$ { $m \in N | m < n$ }

Hint: use induction to prove that all elements of a natural number are natural numbers.

The natural numbers are defined as : 0, 1, 2, ...etc.

The textbook I am using (Hrbacek and Jech) further defines:

$ 1 = \{ 0 \} = \{ \emptyset \}$

I am not sure if I am going about this correctly.

Step ONE: show it is true for the second smallest natural number 1

it is a given that $ 1 \in $ {$0$}

Step TWO: assume it is true for the natural number $k$ IE: $k =$ { $m \in N | m< k$ }

Step THREE: prove it is true for natural number $ k + 1 $

since $ k = \{ m \in N | m < k \}$

and since $ k < k + 1$

then $m < k + 1 $

therefore $ k + 1 = \{ m \in N | m < k + 1 \}$

am I correct?

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  • $\begingroup$ How have you had the natural numbers defined? $\endgroup$ – Tobias Kildetoft May 24 '13 at 18:37
  • $\begingroup$ Erm. $1\in \left\{0\right\}$ is most likely false. You have $1=\left\{0\right\}$ so $0 \in 1$... $\endgroup$ – xavierm02 May 24 '13 at 18:40
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasKildetoft i just put in an edit now defining the natural numbers as 0, 1, 2, 3, ... $\endgroup$ – sarah jamal May 24 '13 at 18:40
  • $\begingroup$ With that definition, there is no way to prove what you want to prove, unless you further define each of those symbols as some specific set. $\endgroup$ – Tobias Kildetoft May 24 '13 at 18:41
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasKildetoft sorry I left out the definition that $1 = \{ 0 \} = \{ \emptyset \} $ $\endgroup$ – sarah jamal May 24 '13 at 18:47
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I suspect that you’ve actually defined $N$ to be the smallest set such that $0\in N$ and for all $n\in N$, $S(n)\in N$ or something very similar, and that you’ve defined $n+1$ to be $S(n)=n\cup\{n\}$ for $n\in N$. To show by induction that $n=\{k\in N:k<n\}$ for each $n\in N$, you must show two things:

  1. $0=\{k\in N:k<0\}$, and
  2. if $n\in N$ and $n=\{k\in N:k<n\}$, then $n+1=\{k\in N:k<n+1\}$.

Note that for (1) you want to start at $n=0$, not at $n=1$. (And what you have for $n=1$ isn’t correct: $1\notin 0$. In fact $1=0\cup\{0\}=\{0\}$, so $0\in 1$.) In order to prove (1) you must show that there is no $k\in N$ such that $k<0$. How you do this will depend on you you’ve defined the relation $<$; I don’t know your definition, so I can’t help here.

For (2), assume that $n=\{k\in N:k<n\}$. Then

$$n+1=S(n)=n\cup\{n\}=\{k\in N:k<n\}\cup\{n\}\;,$$

so to finish the induction step you must show that

$$\{k\in N:k<n\}\cup\{n\}=\{k\in N:k<n+1\}\;.$$

It’s very easy to see that

$$\{k\in N:k<n\}\cup\{n\}\subseteq\{k\in N:k<n+1\}\;,$$

so all that remains is to show that

$$\{k\in N:k<n+1\}\subseteq\{k\in N:k<n\}\cup\{n\}\;.$$

For this you’ll want the result from this question.

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