Let $S(x, B) $ be the set of $B$ smooth numbers less than or equal than $x$. You notice that $n \in S(x, B) $ iff $\log(n) \le \log(x) $. Writing
$$n = \prod_{p_i \le B} p_i^{\alpha_i} $$
For $p_i$ primes and $\alpha_i$ the exponent with which appears (possibly zero), $n\in S(x, B) $ iff
$$\sum_i \alpha_i \log p_i \le \log(x) $$
This is like asking how many integer coordinates points $(\alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_m) $ are contained in the region
$$ A(x, B) = \{ (t_1, \ldots, t_m) \in \mathbb{R}^m : \sum (\log p_i) t_i \le \log(x), \ \ \ t_i \ge 0\} $$
Here $m =\pi(B) $ is the number of free parameters we have.
It turns out this is closely related to the volume of this region: up to small problems on the boundary, a integer coordinate point contribute with a cube of volume 1, so that
$$\# \{\text{integer coordinate points in } A(x, B) \} \sim \text{volume}(A(x, B)) $$
Since the boundary has one dimension less, the approximation gets better and the better as $x$ gets larger with respect to $B$.
Let's wrap our head around how to calculate this volume. We could do the integral but it's boring. Geometrically, it is a little pyramid of dimension $m+1$, with a nice angle at zero and then some edges departing from it. The edges are long $\log(x) /\log(p_i) $: you get this by taking the maximum possible $t_i$ while all the other parameters are zero, because we are going along an axis.
The volume is linear in the length of each of its edges, so that we can factor out a
$$ \prod_{p\le B} \frac{\log(x) }{\log(p) }$$
And we are left with computing the volume of
$$D =\{(t_1, \ldots, t_m) : \sum t_i \le 1, \ \ t_i \ge 0\}$$
For $m=2$, this is $1/2$. Let's show by induction that the volume of such a pyramid in dimension $k$ is $1/k! $. If we know this for $k$, we also know that a tiny piramid with edges $=s$ has volume $s^k/k! $, by the same scaling argument as above. For $k+1$, we can section along a coordinate and we get pyramids of size $s$ for all $0\le s \le 1$. Integrating we get
$$ \int_{s=0}^1 \frac{s^k}{k! } = \frac{1}{(k+1)! }$$
As desired. Getting back to our original problem, we had $m=\pi(B) $ dimensions, so that
$$ \Psi(x, B) \sim \frac{1}{\pi(B)! } \prod_{p \le B} \frac{\log x}{\log p} $$
As desired. Note also that you have estimates of both parts in term of $x, B$, so that you get a neat estimate in the end!