It seems that the limit exists at $x\to\frac{1}{2}$.
Lets' take $x=\frac{1}{2} -\epsilon$; we will set $\epsilon\to0$.
Let's consider
$f(x)=\frac{\tan(\pi x)}{2x - 1}+\frac{2}{\pi(2x - 1)^2}$
$$f(\frac{1}{2}-\epsilon)=\frac{\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}-\pi{\epsilon})}{\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-\pi\epsilon)(-2\epsilon)}+\frac{2}{\pi(2\epsilon)^2}=$$$$\frac{\cos\pi\epsilon}{\sin(\pi\epsilon)(-2\epsilon)}+\frac{1}{2\pi(\epsilon)^2}=\frac{1}{2\pi(\epsilon)^2}-\frac{1-\frac{(\pi\epsilon)^2}{2!}+...}{2\epsilon(\pi\epsilon-\frac{(\pi\epsilon)^3}{3!}+...)}=\frac{1}{2\pi(\epsilon)^2}\left(1-\frac{1-\frac{(\pi\epsilon)^2}{2!}+...}{1-\frac{(\pi\epsilon)^2}{3!}+...}\right)$$
$$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}f(\frac{1}{2}-\epsilon)=\frac{\pi}{6}$$
The same story if we set $x=\frac{1}{2}+\epsilon$ - we get the same limit. So, it seams that both side limits exist.