2
$\begingroup$

I am self-learning Real Analysis from Understanding Analysis by Stephen Abbott.

In the introduction to the topology of $\mathbf{R}$, the author proves that countably finite unions and intersections of open sets results in an open set.

Exercise 3.2.1 asks for the following rather interesting questions.

After giving these answers a thought, I would like to ask for some help; verify if my intuition is correct. I could be entirely wrong, in which case, please share some hints. (Please feel free to add any asides/interesting remarks.)

(a) Where in the proof of the theorem part (ii) does the assumption that the collection of open sets be finite get used?

(b) Give an example of a countable collection of open sets $\{O_1,O_2,O_3,\ldots\}$ whose intersection $\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}O_n$ is closed, not empty and not all of $\mathbf{R}$.

(Story) Proof.

(a) In the proof of the theorem, "The intersection of an arbitrary (finite) collection of open sets is open", we argue that if $x \in \cap_{k=1}^{N}O_k$, then for all $1 \le k \le N$, because $O_k$ is open, there is an $\epsilon_k$ neighbourhood of $x$, $V_{\epsilon_k}(x) \subseteq O_k$. If we choose $\epsilon = \min \{\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2,\ldots,\epsilon_N\}$, then $V_\epsilon(x) \subseteq V_{\epsilon_k}$.

But, instead, if we had a countably infinite sequence of sets, such as $A_n = (0,\frac{1}{n})$, then $\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n = \{0\}$. Every $\epsilon$-neighborhood around this point will not by contained in $\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n$, so the countably infinite intersection is not open.

I know that, $\lim_{n \to\infty}\frac{1}{n} = 0$. We can make this set as small as we like. I am not very confident, about $\cap_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n$, if its a isolated point or $\emptyset$.

(b) I am tempted to think that the Cantor set $C$ is an open set. Basically, its Cantor dust. So, I wonder if $\left[\left(\frac{1}{3},\frac{2}{3}\right) \cup \left(\frac{1}{9},\frac{2}{9}\right) \cup \left(\frac{7}{9},\frac{8}{9}\right) \ldots \right] $ formed by the intersection of the open middle one-thirds of the sets $C_1,C_2,\ldots$, that is $[0,1] - C$ is a closed set.


enter image description here

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The intersection is a singleton as you have correctly deduced and not empty. Another way to see this is to choose $A_n=(-1/n, 1/n)$ which also has intersection $\{0\}$ and more obviously covers $0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 21:04
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If $A_n=(0,1/n)$ then $\cap_n A_n=\emptyset$ which is open. Note that $0\not\in A_n, \forall n.$ $\endgroup$
    – mfl
    Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 21:04
  • $\begingroup$ @CyclotomicField, Out of curiosity, is the Cantor set $C$ open, and therefore $[0,1] - C$ closed? $\endgroup$
    – Quasar
    Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 21:12
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Quasar--- The Cantor set is closed... it is the complement in $[0,1]$ of a union of the removed "middle third" open intervals. That union is open since any union of opens is open. $\endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 21:25
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ In order to answer (b) you might want to go for $O_n = (-1-1/n, 1 + 1/n)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 21:27

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

If there were say countably infinite number of open sets, so that the sequence $(\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2,\cdots)$ went on forever with no end, then the minimum of the $\epsilon_k$ might be $0$ [for example if $\epsilon_k=1/k$ for each $k$].

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .