I am currently learning multivariable calculus and the following was done in my lecture to prove one of the properties of Jacobian
The property:
($JJ'=1$), where $J$ is $\frac{\partial (x,y)}{\partial(u,v)}$ and $J'$ is $\frac{\partial(u,v)}{\partial (x,y)}$
The equation in the proof:
$\partial u = \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} \partial x +\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} {\partial y}$
Then the professoor proceeded to divide by $\partial u$ on both sides so you end up with $\frac{\partial u}{\partial u}$ on the left hand side which is essential 1. He then did this for $v$ also.
My question: $\partial u\ , \partial x\ , \partial y$ on their own makes no sense. And since partial derivative is defined for suppose u with respect to some other variable, dividing or multiplying by $\partial (some \ variable)$ should be wrong. What is the correct theory ?