If $A$ is an infinite set then $\mathcal{F}(A),$ the set of finite subsets of $A$ has the same cardinality as $A$. Is the following proof of the above fact correct?
Note that $|A_k|\leq |A^k|$ for any $k\geq 0,$ where $A_k$ is the set of subsets of $A$ of cardinality $k$ since the map $f : A_k\to A^k, f(\{a_1,\cdots, a_k\}) = (a_1,\cdots, a_k)$ is injective (indeed for two different subsets, at least one element differs, so that element will be mapped to a different tuple by $f$). Then $\mathcal{F}(A) = \cup_{k\geq 0} A_k$, which is a disjoint union as $A_i \cap A_j = \emptyset$ for $i\neq j$ (the cardinality of a finite set is unique). So $|\mathcal{F}(A)| = \sum_{k\geq 0} |A_k| \leq \sum_{k\geq 0}|A^k| = \sum_{k\geq 1}|A^k| = \sum_{k\geq 1} |A| = \aleph_0 |A|$. Also, $g : A\to A_1, g(a) = \{a\}$ is clearly a bijection, so $|A| = |A_1| \leq |\mathcal{F}(A)|$ as $A_1\subseteq \mathcal{F}(A)$ and if $B\subseteq A$ then there is clearly an injective (identity) function from $B$ to $A.$ So $|\mathcal{F}(A)| = |A|$ by transitivity (for infinite sets this also applies).