I am reading the book of V.A.Zorich Mathematical analysis and trying to follow the formal construction of natural numbers and its properties:
Definition 1: The set $X\subset \mathbb{R}$ is called inductive, if for any $x\in R$ the element $x+1 \in \mathbb{R}$.
Definition 2: The set of natural numbers is defined as the minimal inductive set containing $1$, i.e. $$\mathbb{N}:=\bigcap_{A\in \mathcal A}A,$$ where $\mathcal A$ is the family of all inductive sets containing $1$ and we see that $\mathcal A\neq \varnothing$ because $\mathbb{R}\in \mathcal A$.
Principle of Mathematical Induction: If $E\subset \mathbb{N}$ with $1\in E$ and $\forall x\in E (x+1\in E)$ then $E=\mathbb{N}$.
I was able to show that:
- If $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$ then $m+n\in \mathbb{N}$ and $mn\in \mathbb{N}$.
But I have some issues to show the following:
- $(n\in \mathbb{N}) \land (n\neq 1) \Rightarrow ((n-1)\in \mathbb{N}).$
Proof: Let $E:=\{n-1\in\mathbb{N}\mid (n\in \mathbb{N}) \land (n\neq 1)\}$ then he show that $E$ satisfies the principle of Induction and hence $E=\mathbb{N}$ and we are done.
But in my opinion I don't think that this formally correct proof because if $E=\mathbb{N}$ then it does not imply our statement.
Can anyone explain me please? Maybe I am misunderstanding smth.