Proposition
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space, let $E$ be a subset of $X$, and let $x_{0}$ be a point of $X$. Then the following statements are logically equivalent
(a) $x_{0}$ is an adherent point of $E$.
(b) $x_{0}$ is either an interior point or a boundary point of $E$.
(c) There exists a sequence $(x_{n})_{n=1}^{\infty}$ in $E$ which converges to $x_{0}$ with respect to $d$.
Proof
Let us start by the implication $(a)\Rightarrow(c)$.
If $x_{0}$ is an adherent point of $E$, then for every $n > 0$ there corresponds a $x_{n}\in B(x_{0},1/n)\cap E$.
Consequently, since $d(x_{n},x_{0}) \leq 1/n$, the sandwich theorem ensures us that $E\ni x_{n}\to x_{0}$, and we are done.
Now, we are going to prove the implication $(c)\Rightarrow(b)$.
In order to do so, we are going to assume that $(c)$ is true and $(b)$ is false.
Since $x_{0}$ is an exterior point of $E$, there exists a $\varepsilon_{0} > 0$ such that $B(x_{0},\varepsilon_{0})\cap E = \varnothing$.
On the other hand, since $x_{n}\in E$ converges to $x_{0}$, for the same value $\varepsilon_{0} > 0$ there is a $n_{\varepsilon_{0}}\in\mathbb{N}$ s.t.
\begin{align*}
n\geq n_{\varepsilon_{0}} \Rightarrow d(x_{n},x_{0}) \leq \varepsilon_{0} \Rightarrow x_{n}\in B(x_{0},\varepsilon_{0})\cap E
\end{align*}
which contradicts our assumption. Hence $(c)$ implies $(b)$.
Finally, we are going to prove the implication $(b)\Rightarrow(a)$.
If $x_{0}$ is an interior point of $E$, then there exists an open ball $x_{0}\in B(x_{0},r)\subseteq E$.
Consequently, $x_{0}$ is an adherent point of $E$.
Indeed, for every positive number $r > 0$, one has that $x_{0}\in B(x_{0},r)\cap E$.
On the other hand, if $x_{0}$ is a boundary point of $E$, then it is neither an interior point nor an exterior point.
This means that every open ball $B(x_{0},r)$ is not contained in $E$ nor $E^{c}$.
More precisely, every open ball $B(x_{0},r)$ intersects $E$ and $E^{c}$.
Hence we conclude that $x_{0}$ is an adherent point of $E$, and we are done.
Solution
Since $\overline{\Omega}\supseteq\Omega$ and $\Omega\supseteq\text{int}(\Omega)$, we can conclude based on the previous result that
\begin{align*}
\overline{\Omega} = \overline{\Omega}\cup\Omega &= \bigl(\text{int}(\Omega)\cup\partial\Omega\bigr)\cup\Omega =\\
&=\bigl(\text{int}(\Omega)\cup\Omega\bigr)\cup\partial\Omega =\\ &=\Omega\cup\partial\Omega
\end{align*}
and we are done.
Hopefully this helps!