I need to prove the inequality ${M}\choose{N_1}$ ${M}\choose{N_2}$ $\leq$ ${2M}\choose{N_1+N_2}$ for $M, N_1, N_2 \in \mathbb{N},\,M\geq N_1,N_2$.
I wanted to prove it by induction. But since we are given 3 variables running, I was confused if the natural induction, as I know it, can be used in this case. Can you tell me if proving by induction is possible and necessary in this example ?
We get $N_1, N_2, N_1+N_2$ fractions from ${M}\choose{N_1}$,${M}\choose{N_2}$, and ${2M}\choose{M_1+M_2}$, respectively. Without loss of generality, we assume $N_1\geq N_2.\,$An appropriate approximation of all fractions from left to right leads to: $$ \frac{M}{N_1}\frac{M-1}{N_1 -1}\frac{M-2}{N_1-2}\cdots \frac{M-(N_1-1)}{1} \cdot\frac{M}{N_2}\frac{M-1}{N_2 -1}\frac{M-2}{N_2-2}\cdots \frac{M-(N_2-1)}{1}\leq \frac{2M}{N_1+N_2}\cdots $$ For the second fraction from the left I get: $\frac{M-1}{N_1 -1}=\frac{2M-2}{2N_1-2}\geq\frac{2M-1}{2N_1-1}\leq\frac{2M-1}{N_1+N_2-1}.$ The last term in the last inequality is not the convenient approximation for $\frac{M-1}{N_1 -1}$ unless we got $\leq$ instead of $\geq$ sign in the last inequality.
Can somebody provide some hint how to go further ? Thanks.