I'm studying the theorem in the title and the very first elementary observation is not really clear to me. I think I can state it as follow:
Let $Y$ a locally convex space, $M_0$ a closed subspace of $Y$ and $\Sigma$ is the space of all continuous linear functionals on $Y$ that annihilate $M_0$ then $$ \dim Y / M_0 \leq \dim \Sigma $$
I'll quote the book from now on
Pick a positive integer $k \leq \dim Y / M_0$. Then there're vectirs $y_1,\ldots, y_k \in Y$ such that the vector space $M_i$ generated by $M_0$ and $y_1,\ldots y_i$ contains $M_{i-1}$ as proper subspace. By theorem 1.42 each $M_i$ is closed and by theorem 3.5 there're functionals $\Lambda_1, \ldots, \Lambda_k$ such that $\Lambda_i y_i = 1$ but $\Lambda_i y = 0$ for all $y \in M_{i-1}$. These functionals are linearly indipendent. The following conclusion is therefore reached.
I don't understand and I think the reason is beacause I'm missunderstanding the definition of $\Sigma$ which to me is simply $M_0^{\perp}$ and whose dimension is at least $k$ but it's not really helping me to reach the conclusion, so probably I don't understand the definition of $\Sigma$.
Can you clarify why the conclusion is true?
Update : Reference is Theorem 4.25 Rudin's Functional analysis. It's literally the first few lines of the proof of the theorem.