Usually (in India, at least), in 10th grade, trigonometric functions are introduced as ratios of sides of a right triangle. For example, if we have a right triangle $\triangle ABC$ such that $\angle ABC = 90^\circ = \dfrac\pi2^c$ and $\angle C=\theta$. Then, $\sin\theta = \dfrac{\mathrm{perpendicular}}{\mathrm{hypotenuse}} = \dfrac{AB}{AC}$, $\cos\theta = \dfrac{\mathrm{base}}{\mathrm{hypotenuse}} = \dfrac{BC}{AC}$, etc.
We notice that here, if $f$ is a trigonometric function, then $f(\alpha)$, for some angle $\alpha$ is defined only for $\alpha\in(0^\circ,90^\circ)$.
Later on, in 11th grade (again, at least in India), the unit circle definition of trigonometric functions is taught where $\sin\beta$, for example is defined $\forall~\beta\in(-\infty,\infty)$ [all angles, basically].
I want to know why we need to extend the definition of trigonometric functions to all angles. Why can't they just be defined for acute angles? I asked this from a friend of mine and he said that this definition is used multiple times in physics. But as far as I know (and most probably), the unit circle definition was given at a time when physics was not so advanced. So, why exactly did the mathematician(s) who extended the definition do so? Was this extended definition created to solve some problem that could not be solved using the right triangle definition?
Thanks!