I am having an issue with a SVD problem and would like advice. The matrices given are
$$ A= \left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2\\ 3 & 6 \\ \end{matrix}\right]\ \ \ A^TA= \left[ \begin{matrix} 10 & 20\\ 20 & 40 \\ \end{matrix}\right]\ \ \ AA^T= \left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 15\\ 15 & 45 \\ \end{matrix}\right] $$
I initially determined my $λ$ values to be $λ_1=50$ and $λ_2=0$ by computing the following:
$$ det(A^TA-λI)=0\\ \begin{vmatrix} 10-λ & 20\\ 20 & 40-λ \\ \end{vmatrix}\\ (10-λ)(40-λ)-20^2=0\\ 400-50λ+λ^2-400=0\\ λ^2-50λ=0\\ λ(λ-50)=0 $$
This in turn means that my singular values will be $\sigma_1=\sqrt {50}$ and $\sigma_2=0$, and this is where I run into my issue. When I am trying to solve for the orthonormal set with $u_1$ and $u_2$, I was told to use the equation $u_n=\frac{Av_n}{\sigma_n}$. I cannot compute $u_2$ because that would make the denominator $0$, and the fraction would become undefined.
I discussed with my professor and they said I should try to calculate $u_2$ using the eigenvectors from $AA^T$, but $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ have the same eigenvalues. I thought maybe they meant to compute the $u$ for the $\sigma=\sqrt {50}$, but this is not the same answer as the one the book gives. The answers for this and Wolfram Alpha show that the SVD should be
$$ \left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2\\ 3 & 6 \\ \end{matrix}\right]= \frac{1}{\sqrt{10}} \left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & -3\\ 3 & 1 \\ \end{matrix}\right] \left[ \begin{matrix} \sqrt{50} & 0\\ 0 & 0 \\ \end{matrix}\right] \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & -2\\ 2 & -1 \\ \end{matrix}\right] $$
I have gotten that $u_1=\frac{1}{\sqrt{10}} \left[ \begin{matrix} 1 \\ 3 \\ \end{matrix}\right]$, but I do not know how to get $u_2=\frac{1}{\sqrt{10}} \left[ \begin{matrix} -3 \\ 1 \\ \end{matrix}\right]$. Any help would be appreciated.