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A contest-math number theory problem

If $x,y,z \in \mathbb{N}$ and $xy=z^2+1$, prove that there exist integers $a$, $b$, $c$, $d$ such that $x=a^2+b^2$, $y=c^2+d^2$, $z=ac+bd$.


After working for 20 hours, I learned that there is a solution using complex numbers. But I have no idea about the solution. I don't know what will come out of this.

$$xy=(z-i)(z+i)$$

I guess if I could prove that $x = (a-bi)(a+bi)$ and that $y=(c-di)(c+di)$ then maybe I would get a result.

But I don't know how to relate this to the fact that $a, b, c, d$ are integers.

Question 1: (Main)

Can we find a solution using pure number theory without using a complex numbers?

Question 2:

How can a solution be made using complex numbers?

I would love to get a detailed answer. Thank you!

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  • $\begingroup$ Hint: Try to understand which are the numbers that are sums of square, try to understand that the product of numbers that are sum of squares is again a sum of squares. About the point 2, those are not simply complex numbers.. Those are Gauss integers, are a set of numbers like the integers, but his irriducible elements are related with the integer primes that are sums of square. $\endgroup$
    – yo yo
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 17:35

2 Answers 2

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The method below does not require knowing all the primes that can be expressed as the sum of two squares.

We have determinant $1$ in $$ A = \left( \begin{array}{cc} x & z \\ z & y \end{array} \right) $$ As the entries and trace are positive, it is positive definite. Gauss reduction is the finite process of multiplying successively in the form $A \mapsto P^T A P,$ with the choice of $$ P = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & n \\ 0 & 1 \end{array} \right) $$ or $$ P = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array} \right) $$ until the final output is the identity matrix. This comes from the inequalities of Gauss reduction. So $I = P_j^T A P_j $ for an integer matrix $P_j$ of determinant $1.$ By taking $Q = P_j^{-1}$ we get $$ A = Q^T Q $$

$$ Q = \left( \begin{array}{cc} a & c \\ b & d \end{array} \right) $$

NOTE: Gauss reduced means $\langle r,2s,t \rangle$ with $1 \leq r \leq t,$ then $-r < 2s \leq r,$ in the matrix below. A little fiddling with inequalities is needed.

$$ \left( \begin{array}{cc} r & s \\ s & t \end{array} \right) $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Does your answer mean that there is no solution at the Middleschool level (elementary number theory, and algebra precalculus)? $\endgroup$
    – user548054
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 17:54
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    $\begingroup$ @Elementary probably not. The hint needs Gauss integers, unique factorization. My version is about as low-budget as it gets. You do not actually need matrices, it just appears cleaner. Let's see, I recommend Dickson (1929) Introduction to the Theory of Numbers, he does all this and rarely uses matrices. $\endgroup$
    – Will Jagy
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 18:01
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Hint. Notice that every odd prime factor $p$ dividing $z^2+1$ satisfies $p\equiv 1\bmod 4$, since it is the only way that $-1$ is a quadratic residue (we will treat the case $2\mid z^2+1$ at the end). Besides, Fermat's theorem establishes that for every $p\equiv 1\bmod 4$ there exist integers $r,s$ such that $p=r^2+s^2$ (this can be proven, e.g., with Thue's Lemma). Thus, both $x,y$ are a product of odd numbers (and possibly powers of these odd numbers).

Yet, we also have from Brahmagupta's Identity that $$(r^2 + s^2)(t^2 + u^2) = (rt + su)^2 + (ru - st)^2 $$ You can, hence, take two odd primes - say $p_1$ and $p_2$ - , and write them as a sum of squares: $p_1\cdot p_2=(r^2+s^2)(t^2+u^2)=(rt+su)^2+(ru-st)^2$. Use this identity repeatedly. Can you finish?

For the case $2\mid z^2+1$, notice that $2=1^2+1^2$.

Now, we just need to prove that these $a,b,c,d$ satisfy $ad - bc=\pm1$. This looks harder using elementary techniques; I might try it later...

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  • $\begingroup$ One potential issue is that there could be multiple ways to express $x,y$ in that form, which do not lead to $z = ac+bd$ (iff $ad-bc = \pm1$). $\endgroup$
    – Calvin Lin
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 18:46
  • $\begingroup$ That’s what I was thinking of @Calvin Lin... I imagine that some argument using infinite descendent might work, but one will then have to construct a smaller solution, and this does not look that simple $\endgroup$
    – Dr. Mathva
    Commented Nov 15, 2020 at 19:09

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