(Note: This question has been cross-posted to MO.)
This question is an offshoot of this earlier one and this other question.
Let $n = p^k m^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $p$ satisfying $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,m)=1$.
It was conjectured in Dris (2008) and Dris (2012) that the inequality $p^k < m$ holds.
Brown (2016) showed that the Dris Conjecture (that $p^k < m$) holds in many cases.
It is trivial to show that $m^2 - p^k \equiv 0 \pmod 4$. This means that $m^2 - p^k = 4z$, where it is known that $4z \geq {10}^{375}$. (See this MSE question and answer, where the case $m < p^k$ is considered.) Note that if $p^k < m$, then $$m^2 - p^k > m^2 - m = m(m - 1),$$ and that $${10}^{1500} < n = p^k m^2 < m^3$$ where the lower bound for the magnitude of the odd perfect number $n$ is due to Ochem and Rao (2012). This results in a larger lower bound for $m^2 - p^k$. Therefore, unconditionally, we have $$m^2 - p^k \geq {10}^{375}.$$ We now endeavor to disprove the Dris Conjecture.
Consider the following sample proof argument:
Theorem If $n = p^k m^2$ is an odd perfect number satisfying $m^2 - p^k = 8$, then $m < p^k$.
Proof
Let $p^k m^2$ be an odd perfect number satisfying $m^2 - p^k = 8$.
Then $$(m + 3)(m - 3) = m^2 - 9 = p^k - 1.$$
This implies that $(m + 3) \mid (p^k - 1)$, from which it follows that $$m < m + 3 \leq p^k - 1 < p^k.$$ We therefore conclude that $m < p^k$.
QED
So now consider the equation $m^2 - p^k = 4z$. Following our proof strategy, and the formula in the accepted answer to the first hyperlinked question, we have:
$$m^2 - \bigg(\lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\bigg)^2 = p^k + \Bigg(4z - \bigg(\lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\bigg)^2\Bigg).$$
So the only remaining question now is whether it could be proved that $$\Bigg(4z - \bigg(\lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\bigg)^2\Bigg) = -y < 0$$ for some positive integer $y$?
In other words, is it possible to prove that it is always the case that $$\Bigg((m^2 - p^k) - \bigg(\lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\bigg)^2\Bigg) < 0,$$ if $n = p^k m^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $p$?
(Additionally, note that it is known that $m^2 - p^k$ is not a square, if $p^k m^2$ is an OPN with special prime $p$. See this MSE question and the answer contained therein.)
If so, it would follow that $$\Bigg(m + \lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\Bigg)\Bigg(m - \lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\Bigg) = p^k - y$$ which would imply that $$\Bigg(m + \lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\Bigg) \mid (p^k - y)$$ from which it follows that $$m < \Bigg(m + \lfloor{\sqrt{m^2 - p^k} + \frac{1}{2}}\rfloor\Bigg) \leq p^k - y < p^k.$$
Update (November 11, 2020 - 10:21 PM Manila time) Please check out the recently posted answer for a minor adjustment to the logic that should make the general proof argument work.