$$\textit{Proposition}: \text{Given} \ X = (n-1)^n + n,\ \forall \ n \in \Bbb Z, \ n \geq 4, X \ \text{is composite.}$$
This came up sort of at random on a mailing list and it's jammed its way into being stuck in my brain. It's easy to test that it's true for the first few hundred thousand integers, suggesting it's likely true.
There are a few things that are easy to prove:
$X$ is always odd: if $(n-1)^n$ is odd, $n$ is even and vice versa.
$(n - 1) \equiv -1 \pmod n $. Since $n \equiv 0 \pmod n$, we can see that $X \equiv (-1)^n \pmod n $. Therefore, $X \equiv -1 \pmod n$ for odd $n$, and $X \equiv 1 \pmod n $ for even $n$.
If $n \equiv 2 \pmod 3$, then $n-1 \equiv 1 \pmod 3$, so $(n-1)^n \equiv 1 \pmod 3$. If we add $n \equiv 2 \pmod 3$, we have $0 \pmod 3$, so $3 \mid X$. So a third of possible values for $n$ are easily shown to be composite, namely $n = 3m + 2$.
If $n \equiv \{4,13\} \pmod {20}$, then $5 \mid X$, as follows:
If $n \equiv 4 \pmod {20}$ , then $4 \mid n$, $n \equiv 4 \pmod{10}$, and $(n - 1) \equiv 3 \pmod{10}$. Then we have $4^3+4 \equiv 5 \pmod{10}$
If $n \equiv 13 \pmod {20}$, then $4 \mid (n-1)$, $(n-1) \equiv 12 \pmod{20}$, and $(n-1) \equiv 2 \pmod {10}$.
Additionally, $n \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $n \equiv 3 \pmod{10}$.
Therefore, in decimal, $(10k + 2)^{4m+1} \equiv 2 \pmod{10}$. Adding $n \equiv 3 \pmod{10}$ gives $X \equiv 5 \pmod{10}$.
That takes care of 40% of the integers. But (1) I feel like we ought not to have to go through the integers modulus by modulus, and (2) well, we have a lot of integers left.
Some other interesting tidbits that may or may not help:
- For $n$ even and $n \not\equiv 2 \pmod 3$, $X$ is often divisible by $(n+1)$, or by $p$ if $(n+1) = p^2$, $p$ prime. Up to $n = 72$, this fails for $n = 34, 54, 64$.
- For $n \not\equiv 2 \pmod 3$, $X$ is sometimes divisible by $(2n-1)$. Again up to $n = 72$, this is true for even $n = 6, 10, 22, 30, 34, 42, 54, 66, 70$. (Interesting, for all of those, $n \equiv 2 \pmod 4$. Just noticing that.) It's true for odd $n = 9, 21, 37, 45, 49, 57$... which are all $n \equiv 1 \pmod 4$.
Of course, being sometimes divisible by those numbers doesn't tell us why they're divisible by them. I tried using partial binomial expansions (learning about Stirling numbers along the way) but couldn't get anything useful. Has anyone seen or worked with this proposition before? Is it proven and I just can't find it anywhere?