Find the locus of $z$ such that $\arg \frac{z-z_1}{z-z_2} = \alpha$. Use and draw $w = \frac{z-z_1}{z-z_2}$.
This exercise was discussed many times -- 1, 2, 3, 4 -- but I was unable to find answers to my problem with $0$ there.
I believe I understand where the arcs came from, here's my work:
If I understand correctly, for $\alpha = \pm\pi$, the locus would be the segment connecting $z_2$ and $z_1$, not including the points themselves.
I can not understand what is happening when $\alpha = 0$.
$\alpha = 0 = \arg \frac{z-z_1}{z-z_2} = \arg w \Longrightarrow \frac{z-z_1}{z-z_2} = k \in \mathbb{R}, \frac{z-z_1}{z-z_2} = k\frac{z-z_2}{z-z_2}.$
Solving this for $z$, $z = \frac{x_1-kx_2}{1-k} +i\frac{y_1-ky_2}{1-k}$. I am having trouble understanding the locus of this $z$. The textbook says it should be 'two segments with end points in $z_1$ and $z_2$, and one of this segments contains an infinitely distant point'. How to understand why is this answer right, and how to draw it? It seems the infinitely distant point matches $k=1$, but why should it lie in the 'direction' of the line passing through $z_1$ and $z_2$?
My class notes are messy. Why is $(0, 1)$ special on $w$ plane?
Thank you.