Let $f:X\to Y$ be a mapping from the topological space $X$ to $Y$. Show that the existence of neighborhood $V_y$ of $\forall y \in Y$ such that $f^{-1}(V_y)\subset U$ for any open $U: f^{-1}(y)\in U$ is necessary and sufficient condition for $f$ to be a closed mapping.
I'm fairly new to topology, so even the statement of the problem was quite tough to understand for me.
I started by trying to prove the sufficient condition:
- Let $f:X\to Y$ be a mapping from the topological space $X$ to $Y$. Assume there exists a neighborhood $V_y$ of $\forall y \in Y$ such that $f^{-1}(V_y)\subset U$ for any open $U: f^{-1}(y)\in U$. Now, we know that $f(y)=U$ and $V_y \subseteq f(U)$. This implies that $f(U)$ is an open set since $y$ lies in $f(U)$ with some neighborhood. Then, $f$ sends open sets to open sets $(\because U\overset f{\mapsto} f(U) \text{ is open to open})$.
I do not know if I am right so far, but even if I am, I do not see any use of that piece of observation.
For the second direction (assuming $f$ is closed), I do not have idea on how to use the definition of the closed mapping (if it's really needed).
Thanks in advance for your help!